I don't quite get the logic ...
Your scenario:
- JPM acquire shares from a seller at $1.26 about 24-48 hours before negative news is released by company (finance backing pulled).
- JPM then write an analyst report marking the share price down to $0.75 (effectively devaluing the shares they just purchased)
Why would they do that?
I don't quite get the logic ...Your scenario: JPM acquire shares...
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Last
$1.30 |
Change
0.020(1.56%) |
Mkt cap ! $3.151B | |||
| Open | High | Low | Value | Volume |
| $1.29 | $1.32 | $1.29 | $14.22M | 10.93M |
Buyers (Bids)
| No. | Vol. | Price($) |
|---|---|---|
| 4 | 101255 | $1.30 |
Sellers (Offers)
| Price($) | Vol. | No. |
|---|---|---|
| $1.31 | 79871 | 6 |
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| Last trade - 16.10pm 31/05/2024 (20 minute delay) ? |
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Last
$1.30 |
Change
0.020 ( 0.75 %) |
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| Open | High | Low | Volume | ||
| $1.29 | $1.32 | $1.29 | 1587215 | ||
| Last updated 15.59pm 31/05/2024 ? | |||||
| LTR (ASX) Chart |