Flee from idolatry

Originally posted by wotsup ↑

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There is no question that 3 "men" appeared, one of them being Yehowah himself and were offered food, rest and water for feet by Abraham.
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Rubbish, the VERY words of the Bible say, Yehowah appeared and ALSO 3 men came or appeared = it's as simple as that, you ARE adding what is NOT there.

Tent etc, it doesn't matter where Yehowah was, when speaking to her, 3 men were under the tree = 4 in total on the scene, but Yehowah alone speaking re the woman.
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Later, Yehowah discussed with his companions whether to tell Abraham of his plans for Sodom.

Those 2 companions then set off for Sodom and arrived in the evening. There is no break in the story and to insist that 3 different men set off for Sodom then just disappeared while 2 new angels arrived in Sodom shortly thereafter is an example that it is you that has added to the story.
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Yehowah discussed with the 3 men, so where have you all of a sudden made one of the 3 disappear, it's like abracadabra, one of you gone, go get LOL.
NO, it says the men (3) went to Sodom, STOP adding what is NOT in the scriptures, you have NO grounds to reduce 3 men to 2, none whatsoever.

I add zero to the story, it is YOU adding what is not there.
We have no Idea what the 3 men got up to, after they left = end of their story, so accept it.
2 angles appear, show up = so what, 2 angles are 2 angels, no grounds whatsoever to say they are of the 3 men, none.

Not my translation at all, it's what the Bible says.
Yehowah shows up, 3 men come along, Abraham address's Yehowah as Lord, 3 men leave for Sodom, we see no more of them and 2 angels hit the scene in Sodom = all very simple.
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Interlinear chum, I only refer to it because, above the Greek or Hebrew words, is a number and that then brings up THEIR definition of THEIR word, not ours but theirs, so THAT is what should have been translated bellow THEIR words and not others creations, like we see a lot of, even in the Interlinear.
So how the Hec has this been possible and missed for all these years?????????????????/
Have you even seen the TRUTH of John's prologue = NOTHING like what most Bibles have created.
No way is Jesus literally in John 1:14, he is only referenced and behind the scenes.
No way can you prove this to be false, if you pretty much take the first and ordinary meaning of the Greek words.
God is the speaker there, for the first 17 verses.
NO such thing even mentioned as in -> and the word became flesh = NOOOOOOOOOOOOOOO!
Jesus does NOT even show up in John until he meets John the Baptist.
I think John 1:30 along with another after 1:14, have also been grossly tampered with, to say Jesus was before John the Baptist = liars.
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Invented my own rules -> come on then, produce something and show from the Bible, where I have done such, are you up to it?
You have clearly demonstrated, it is you that has in fact ADDED words to the Bible, on this subject Gen 18.
You in effect, are condemning me for not following suit.
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If something has been said then that must stand until explicitly re-said."

Do you want me to dig up one of your post re this Gen 18 matter, where it was YOU that effectively set this rule???????????
But never the less, your statement above is true, we have NO grounds to add or create, if something is not there.
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A professional translator does not try to render a literal word for word translation which in many cases just produces illegible gobledy gook."

The moment you start adding words for translation and messing with their Order of words, is the very moment you change the context and meanings.
Why they just simply didn't translate word for word is beyond me.
" illegible gobledy gook." = Absolute rubbish, I have Zero problems whatsoever, it becomes as clear as a bell.

Mind you, Jesus does say, those of God HEAR God's word LOL.
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All this reinforces that Sola Scriptura is a complete nonsense and doomed to produce nothing but confusion and division.

Of course nowhere does the Bible endorse or insist on Sola Scriptura.
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OK then smarty, answer the following, as no one else will or can.
After Jesus, there is No question about it, that both the Father and the Son would be our teaches, all that Jesus had (his word) would be shown to us, including translation, so HOW on earth with that in mind, can you have something like 30,000 different Christian faiths = impossible if they are truly of God and Jesus.

So, clearly Sola Scriptura needs to be upheld, as I try and insist, one way and one way only.
Mans creations have caused the above and all caused by the CC's planted roots.

With the above in mind also, molesting kids etc, should be impossible, should be like your doing it with the Father and Son by your side.
Are you getting the picture???????

And your suggesting I'm wrong?????????????????????????????????
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A professional translator
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Do yourself a favor, go to Bible Hub, Interlinear John ch 1, for the first 18 verses.
Ignore the English translations, click the number above each Greek word and where possible use the first defined words, unless the next is the same, but fits better with other passages.
Let it then do the real talking, truth, then come back to me and discuss this said "professional translator" stuff with me, I don't believe you will ever use such language again.

Expand

Hopefully all this will be clearer once you post your translation of Ch 18. In the meantime ..

"Rubbish, the VERY words of the Bible say, Yehowah appeared and ALSO 3 men came or appeared = it's as simple as that, you ARE adding what is NOT there."

Please quote the verse that says the 3 men "ALSO" appeared because it says no such thing.
The opening sentence flags this as a story about another encounter by Abraham with Yehowah. This time in the form of a man.

Re verse 3 then verse 4. Please show where it says Abe was addressing Yehowah in 3 then in 4 specifically starts addressing only the 3 separate men. It doesn't say that which is something you have added.

Re Yehowah in the tent you wrote in a previous post ..

"Too bad if it does not make sense to you, the CLEAR fact is, the Bible shows NO link between the 3 men and the 2 angels, latter referred to as 2 men.
You it would seem have IGNORED, that while the 3 men were sitting under the tree, Yehowah was speaking in the Tent = 3 + 1 = 4."
So, you got that wrong.
Now you try to dismiss your error by saying it doesn't matter. It matters because you got it wrong.
Don't you wonder what else you might have wrong ?

You seem somehow hung up on the 3 into 2 as if some magic is required.
It's simple if you read and understand what is written.

Yehowah and his 2 companions (the 3 "men") prepare to leave for Sodom with Yehowah intending to accompany them to see for himself the situation. (Not sure why an omniscient God who supposedly knows every hair on everyone's head would need to do that ... do you ?)
Abraham then stands in the way of Yehowah and begins to intercede for the innocent Sodomites. The remaining 2 continue on to Sodom where they arrive that evening.

Nothing strange and nothing added to the story.

"Do you want me to dig up one of your post re this Gen 18 matter, where it was YOU that effectively set this rule???????????"
Yes, please do it would be interesting. Mind you if I did set that rule then it would be OK for you to use it !

"The moment you start adding words for translation and messing with their Order of words, is the very moment you change the context and meanings.
Why they just simply didn't translate word for word is beyond me.
" illegible gobledy gook." = Absolute rubbish, I have Zero problems whatsoever, it becomes as clear as a bell."

What can I say.
Over the last 8 or so years you have made great efforts to improve your grasp of English and sincerley dabble in something you simply don't have the knowledge or experience to undertake.
Translating a foreign language particularly an ancient form of Greek requires enormous skill and knowledge both of the Greek and English.
Have you ever translated Latin, French, German etc ? In many cases there is no corresponding English word and the word order in English is not right when rendered literally. The translator also has to look out for when a particular expression is used that might have a different meaning than the individual words convey.

You don't understand "Why they just simply didn't translate word for word is beyond me.", simply because you are not an experienced translator of Greek, Hebrew or even English. Simple as that.

As for your 30,000

"OK then smarty, answer the following, as no one else will or can.
After Jesus, there is No question about it, that both the Father and the Son would be our teaches, all that Jesus had (his word) would be shown to us, including translation, so HOW on earth with that in mind, can you have something like 30,000 different Christian faiths = impossible if they are truly of God and Jesus."

The 30,000 is an exaggeration as most of them have more or less identical theology and are the product of individuals who see themselves as specially chosen to reveal the light. Not unlike wotsup.

The main reason is because your belief "After Jesus, there is No question about it, that both the Father and the Son would be our teaches, all that Jesus had (his word) would be shown to us, including translation, " is simply and plainly NOT true.
No matter what you think it says in the Bible.

I'll leave you to worry and argue with others about John. It clearly was written for a different purpose than the other Gospels and most likely to address specific problems between early followers about the nature of Jesus.

It will never make sense unless you understand the attempt in John to proclaim and emphasise the divinity of Jesus and the difference between the incarnate Jesus and his "overself" (some call the Christ).
Good luck.

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