I think he might have used the difference for his tax (assuming that's what he really needed it for) and re-brought roughly what he paid initially for those shares.
If he brought 500,000 for 3cents its $15,000 back in the day.
He sold them for 20-21cents lets say 20cents
That's $100,000.00 roughly give or take.
Then maybe he paid his tax bill from the $85k difference.
Then he went ahead and re brought 150,000 shares at .094 roughly 14100.
Does that sound plausible or am i just losing my mind.
All just a theory..
Ann: Change of Director's Interest Notice , page-5
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