It might have been shown to be the case somewhere else, but that doesn't quite make logical sense to me NS.
So in theory, they own 20% of MS ~ ok cool.
Which means then in theory (not that it works this way) they'd own 1/5th of the MS shares?
Wouldn't it also mean that any other major holders of MS would need to announce this info?
Ann: Ceasing to be a substantial holder , page-7
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