3m$ cr for us, little investors...., page-27

Schpooks, my understanding is that it works on a first in first out basis.

So if you bought 100000 more than 12 months ago, then 50000 less than twelve months ago, if you suddenly had to sell 50000 then it would be drawn from the first tranche and the discount would apply.

If I'm wrong about this then would someone PLEASE set me right.

The other thing is that to claim the CGT discount you have to have cleared any accumulated losses first. I'm not quite sure how that works if, in a financial year, you sell one tranche of shares without the discount and one with. Again I'd always assumed order of sale is the working principal here.