That's a fair challenge mightyatom based on common technical definitions of free float. It could be applied to my last post in the specific detail too.
However in respect of shorting and the practical effect on liquidity in the market place as hindmost is arguing, bottom drawer shares are 'effectively' (hindmost's term) not in the free float - that is hindmost's specific starting point. It is the context of hindmost's argument that this response is being made because hindmost is confused about what actually takes place in a shorting transaction.
So in that respect you are correct to challenge us on the tightness of our definitions but the argument remains pertinent in the context.
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