What are you basing your conclusion on? Because there's currently no evidence that definitively proves that. The only thing that will prove it is a copy of the agreement - that I believe AZZ had previously sent to the ASX (with the buyers name redacted). Now the ASX hasn't contradicted AZZ have they?
Here's that old example again, person A who is a ninja (no job, no income, no assets) gets pre-approval from Lehmann Brothers to buy a house for a million dollars from person B, executes an agreement on 1 Jan with "no conditions precedent", to be settled on 1 March. Before the settlement date, the housing market goes bust, the house is now only worth half a million, and Lehmann Brothers has also gone bust and person A is now no longer able to settle - was there a condition in the agreement? No there isn't, but because the housing market is dead and person A can no longer access the money he thought he could. Person B can try suing person A, but they'll get sweet FA because person A is a ninja.
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