It's interesting that you bring up the fact that a gap may have traded at that price point, but on very low volume. It always annoyed me when people called GAP! if a price point had been missed, but can someone please tell me how it's still not a gap if, say, 1 share traded in it? I've seen people call gaps being closed on, honestly, 1 share being traded. Given gaps are about market psychology (isn't everything?) how the hell is there a difference? I need a beer.
XPE Charts, page-1479
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Last
6.9¢ |
Change
0.000(0.00%) |
Mkt cap ! $1.862M |
Open | High | Low | Value | Volume |
0.0¢ | 0.0¢ | 0.0¢ | $0 | 0 |
Buyers (Bids)
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
2 | 91166 | 6.9¢ |
Sellers (Offers)
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
8.5¢ | 182500 | 1 |
View Market Depth
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
2 | 91166 | 0.069 |
3 | 15100 | 0.063 |
2 | 180000 | 0.060 |
1 | 86000 | 0.058 |
1 | 53000 | 0.056 |
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
0.085 | 182500 | 1 |
0.089 | 200 | 1 |
0.090 | 150 | 1 |
0.095 | 1524 | 1 |
0.096 | 52424 | 1 |
Last trade - 16.12pm 12/07/2024 (20 minute delay) ? |
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