So just curious how that works call option exercised at .03c. (having read it properly)
Seems she only has 2 mil shares after the notice and had 35 million before notice so the 33 million came from her holding. Im thinking the call option was an option placed by his daughter thinking it would not get to 3c anytime soon but now it has the option holder exercised and took the shares at the 3c option price since they are now at 4c so nice gain. Does that sound correct. If so then definately not deliberately selling.
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