Howdy,
Re- this subject or area.
One thing for sure is, I don't have all the answers or have a firm view one way or the other at this point in time.
I notice there appears to be around three lines of thought in this area, however where I have trouble on some of them is, many appear to use assumptions/imply meanings and thoughts etc when there is no actual wording to support their view.
With reference to the burning bush - There is absolutely nothing in these verses that say, the angel in the flames spoke those words. It was after the angel was seen that "God" spoke. To say the angel was actually speaking, is an assumption/adding and not where I allow myself to go.
However and having said that, we do have other verses where it is clear that an angel is claiming to have actually spoken the words that God had spoken earlier.
But in each case, the receiver/hearer of those words "makes it very clear" they were the words of The God Almighty and in some instances, claimed by seeing the angel, they had in fact seen God (The God).
Now that as I said is referring to The God, so to then say or assume it must be Jesus, is purely guess work or assumptions or your saying, Jesus is The God.
Many claim, assume that Jesus was the spokes person for God in the OT when to my knowledge, there are no verses to support this? However we do have several verses where God says, he will send a Messenger, a Prophet and I will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him. Deu 18:18, Acts 3:22 and as you know, this is confirmed by Jesus in several places in John.
And Heb 1:1-2 God, (not Jesus) who at sundry times and in divers manners (unspecified people, objects or acts) spake in times past (burning bush etc) unto the fathers by the prophets. 2. Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son,..........
The above appears to be in conflict with the thought or thinking of Jesus being the angel of the Lord (speaker) in the OT?
So to me at least, it appears Jesus "only" become the spokes person when he came and dwelt among us.
Now many claim Jesus is the word in John 1:1 despite it clearly saying, And God (Almighty) was the word and IMO to do this, you have to show/accept that Jesus was the speaker in the Gen creation account which I don't believe can be shown/supported?
Prov 8 suggests and shows, he was by God's side while God created as one brought up by him.
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