Howdy,
That He (God) SENT his (God) only begotten (birthed, born) SON (actual father /son relationship ) into the world
John 3.16
His (God) - Been slowly but surely working through the subject of Jesus being around in the OT AND in the context you previously pointed out and from the info you gave me.
One area that has me stopping in my tracks and thinking, or should I say needs consideration and answering so we get Flow (no unanswered points). The simple fact of the matter is, we can't ignore what the NT tells us.
In various ways and in several instances, Moses, Prophets etc were told of one coming in the future and he Will become and given this and that etc King, throne of David and the list goes on. AND as I see it and in most cases, regardless as to whether the verses later mention an angel giving a message, the receivers more often than not, considered they were receiving it from The Almighty God directly. (Yes there needs to be an explanation for that).
And sure enough we see in the NT, Jesus was exalted, given a name above all names, all authority has been given to me, authority given to forgive sins and on and on the list goes just as the OT said would happen.
However and subject to further reading, all these positions, name given etc going by the lead up verses to them, appear to have happened while here or because of what he had done. Even when you see them, "by inheritance" or aligned with that term, it still appears to infer it was, because of what he has done.
If I am correct with my take on the first 18 verses of John, a prelude to the whole story of the Book of John, first 1:1 the source from how and whence all comes from, to Jesus being back in the bosom of the Father at 18 (after the cross),then this IMO suggest/hints at the same points I cover above.
At verse 14 we have, "as of the only begotten of the Father", and in the account of Mary we see, and he will be "called" the Son of the highest. So 14 can be referred to as, the only begotten Son of the Father (not suggesting this is when here).
However, it would seem from the Greek, verse 18 says, "only begotten god" is the correct verse. So the question or thought arises and based on what much of the NT says, it seems Jesus has been "given" the god title (promoted). Once didn't have or received it at NT times. Because of what he has done.
As far as I'm concerned there is no hint in John for anyone to claim a god.
What most seem to refuse to acknowledge is, the "He" in 1:2 which creates a second being, should NOT be there. Should be same or it.
If Son or a god belongs, it would have been there in PLAIN sight IMO.
Anyway, 1:1 is not the point I was covering.
Many of the points raised in the info you gave me with reference to titles etc Jesus had, appear an after event or because of his achievements. But I will endeavor to go over them in more detail.
Expand
