Did God foreknow the rebellion in Eden, page-553

Hi Tonio,

John 1:14 does not have the word Son, Jesus is referred to as the only begotten
Yes I do know that, but if you have a look at Luke 1:32 it says, he will be called the Son of the highest.
But having said that, I have broken my own rules, well,,,,,, God's rules in fact, by assuming/adding.
So it was well spotted by you and I hope you apply that rule across the board?
So if we follow that rule, things are possibly going to show up that rocks the boat for many people;
We only have God claiming Jesus is his Son after Jesus's baptism. So then, where and how do the words - "God sent his Son" fit into the picture as you have to have a Son to send? Are you suggesting that means, after Jesus's baptism God "sent him" (out) into the world to spread God's word as in the following context;
John 17:18 (Jesus's words to the Father) - As thou hast "sent me" into the world, even so have I "sent them" into the world.
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18 God no one hath ever seen; an only begotten, himself​

God, who is unto the bosom of the Father, HE hath declared him.
I don't think the Bible says there was any back to the bosom of the Father ,
After the ressurrection the Son of God sits at the right hand of the Father
The bosom of the Father would be from eternity and before the Son of God was brought forth
Hmmm, I notice you have added "himself" in here = naughty haha
Following is the Greek;
God no one has seen ever yet; (the) only begotten God, the (one) being in the bosom of the Father, he has made (him) known. Clearly we have God and a begotten God who God at one point said, This is my Son who I am well pleased with.
Man has obviously added the words in the brackets.
However when we actually look at what it's saying here (Oh no we have a problem Huston) All it says is, Jesus has declared him, it doesn't say he has seen him?? "No one has seen ever yet".

Regardless as to what one does with this verse, take note - Jesus is referred to as, "only begotten". Comes from beget or begat = You have gotten something you did have or once wasn't there. The Almighty God and Father of Jesus has always been.
You even mention - brought forward and we have other verses saying, came out from God and then we have Jesus being the Image of God. You can't be what your the image of just as you can't be the words you speak that someone gave and told you to say.

Verses 16-17 And of his fullness have all we received = Suggests those at that point have seen and aware of all what Jesus did, completed/end of and how we are no under grace and Jesus back with the Father at 1:18.


Tell me Tonio, including you, why will no one answer me when I ask a fare and reasonable question and that being;
When we consider the importance of God's word in it's entirety throughout the Bible, WHY has man elected to change it's meaning just for John, including adding the capital W where the Greek gives ZERO grounds for doing it???

The Bible tells us, in these last days (after Prophets) God has spoken to us through Jesus. Do you not think it would be important and not hidden to know Jesus spoke before this time if as many claim he did in the OT?
Did Moses think he was speaking to the Son?
Was Moses not told of one coming in the future?