"Many claim 1 John 5:7 doesn't belong in the majority of the Greeks manuscripts, however it would appear this claim is possibly not correct and that they only come to this conclusion by taking in only around 25% of the Greek manuscripts?"
I think that you have raised a major problem with scripture - the need to resort to the majority of the Greek manuscripts. Does this mean that the minority (25% is a fairly large majority) have it wrong.
It questions the notion that scripture is the inerrant word of God, don't you think?
