Just to get off the track abit and talk about the tax scenario. This $5000.00 franking credit rule is a bit of a joke. The tax has already been paid by the company so why do you have too hold for more than 45 days after the divvy is paid to claim the credit.
I know the answer is because it is written in the tax legislation but what would be there reasoning be behind this?
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Last
$3.93 |
Change
0.000(0.00%) |
Mkt cap ! $45.40B |
Open | High | Low | Value | Volume |
$3.92 | $3.94 | $3.91 | $47.23M | 12.02M |
Buyers (Bids)
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
8 | 224932 | $3.92 |
Sellers (Offers)
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
$3.94 | 203699 | 35 |
View Market Depth
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
7 | 214932 | 3.920 |
10 | 443029 | 3.910 |
39 | 290887 | 3.900 |
15 | 158770 | 3.890 |
12 | 259247 | 3.880 |
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
3.940 | 203699 | 35 |
3.950 | 527950 | 53 |
3.960 | 575803 | 18 |
3.970 | 236684 | 14 |
3.980 | 134146 | 19 |
Last trade - 16.10pm 02/09/2024 (20 minute delay) ? |
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