I wonder if there were appeasers in the time of the three previous attempted muslim invasions of Europe.
I assume there were but the historical record is not available as far as I know. We can infer backwards from the fact that there were appeasers everywhere in Europe to the Nazi aggression and invasions.
But going back say to the attempted invasion from Moorish Spain that was turned back by Charles Martel in the 8th century, were there appeasing elements at that time. My guess is there would have been.
