Don't want to get stuck on this consolidation chatter as it's just that, but could someone help me understand why shareholders might be worse off in the event of one? I thought I understood it but perhaps I dont.
I've tried to work it out myself on a hypothetical. Say I bought 1,000,000 @ 1c = $10k. SP increases to 10c so my holding is now valued at $100k, with a tidy profit of $90k. Share consolidation of 1-for-10 occurs at 10c. I now have 100,000 shares priced at $1 = $100k. So i have the same value and profit. Assuming I can sell at $1 I am still a happy chap.
I generally understand why consolidations occur but not the effect of them on SP and sentiment. Do they often drive the price down - either when the proposal announcement is made, and/or on the date it takes effect? Also at what point in a SP's trajectory do consolidations often take place? When the price has been stagnant and low for a long time? Surely it wouldnt occur during a SP rise or with positive news in the pipeline, which effectively translates to buying interest. Would there be a likelihood of it happening before any hopeful/expected rise in the SP in the next 6 months or so? Is this when we should be wary - because with a higher SP its takes bigger gains to get the same profit? I'm guess i'm hoping we've all made profit first and then we can sell and live happily ever after.
Apologies for the littany of questions.... Trying to get my head around the concept in a broader sense as well and not necessarily just to CTM. I've done some reading this morning about it but if anyone cares to enlighten/correct that'd be awesome!
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