And why would they do that whether they are in a "black out" period or not given they actually had 45M shares bought at 2c but decide to indirectly sell them at 20c (only 3c lower) for tax purpose, I'm able to defer last year's tax until March this year, couldn't they do the same for the following year when they can sell it at a higher pps (as most of you think this will happen).....?
PainChek General Discussion, page-10729
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3.4¢ |
Change
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Mkt cap ! $55.61M | |||
| Open | High | Low | Value | Volume |
| 3.6¢ | 3.7¢ | 3.4¢ | $45.39K | 1.278M |
Buyers (Bids)
| No. | Vol. | Price($) |
|---|---|---|
| 5 | 497311 | 3.4¢ |
Sellers (Offers)
| Price($) | Vol. | No. |
|---|---|---|
| 3.5¢ | 254838 | 1 |
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