IMO, your info is as misleading as the info you are criticizing.
You are assuming that the Cash on Hand has not decreased in the last 3months (since Dec31)
And then you are also assuming that the Cash on Hand will remain stable (Income = Expense) for the next 12months until the final amount of the sale is paid.
You gleefully mention the Debtors, but dismiss the liability, even though the net difference is still a degradation of Cash on Hand.($1.4 vs $2.6m).
So you are making an assumption that even this lower amount of liability is going to disappear too?
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