Err...You missed it again and have not cleared anything up...this is becoming embarrasing.
So CLEAR THIS UP... You... "2 - the lender has voting rights, not the borrower. Period"
So therefore.... If the borrower sells his shares (short sell) then what happens? The guy who buys a parcel of his shares on market unknowingly has no voting rights? Is that what you are saying? That would be clearly incorrect. If what you are saying is correct there would be more votes than shares?...is that logic? Therefore, 2 of the 3 parties involved in the short sell process have to give up their vote at any one time....and you are saying its the guy who bought a share legitimately and unknowingly from a shorter at the end cant vote?
How does shorting facilitate takeover when none CURRENTLY own shares?
Think harder. Christ...its not that hard to understand the question.
Or is it?
And FYI others have said that they DO NOT have voting rights? So one of you is wrong.
PNV Price at posting:
$1.15 Sentiment: Buy Disclosure: Held
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