My uderstanding is that only fully paid shares have full voting rights?
Partly paid shares have a pro rata percentage applied.
Did Burton use his shares in the vote?? How could we find out?
What percentage of the shares value, if any, had he paid for before the 249D?
Paying for them now retrospectively surely would not make them valid in my mind.
Hmm. If ASIC find he has not paid a single cent, then none of those 4 Millon votes would be valid.
Wouldn't that be great!!
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