Am I dim - or is there a rather large disconnect between free cash flow and earnings, particularly at the NPAT level?
How can cashflow be so good? Rare to see FCF inline with adjusted EBITDA let alone above it.
Does Task receive funds from underlying customers and then holds that before eventually distributing it to the retail customer? WIth the implication that a lot of that cash actually doesn't belong to Task / is not available to Task?
Or is it just mega up front payments for reasons?
Just curious - latest quarterly cashflow put it on my radar - trying to get my head around it.
Ann: FY23 Forecast Financial Result, page-10
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