You know if Arab countries blockaded Israel from the seas and air, Israel would declare WAR against those Arab countries.
Yup, that is what they would do.
Well, that is exactly what they did, when Arab countries; Egypt in particular, blocked the Strait of Tiran, on 22nd May 1967.
And Israel responded by initiating the 6 day war in June 1967.
"Neff, David. Warriors for Jerusalem: The Six Days that Changed the Middle East, p. 88 (Simon & Schuster, 1984): "In separate messages to the leading maritime powers, Eshkol warned: 'Israel would stop short of nothing to cancel the blockade. It is essential that President Nasser should not have any illusions.'"
and this
" Interference, by armed force, with ships of Israeli flag exercising free and innocent passage in the Gulf of Aqaba and through the Straits of Tiran will be regarded by Israel as an attack entitling it to exercise its inherent right of self-defence under Article 51 of the Charter and to take all such measures as are necessary to ensure the free and innocent passage of its ships in the Gulf and in the Straits."
So how come Israel have the right to go to War against Nations who "BLOCKADE" its sea access, but NOT Gazan who were "BLOCKADED" from both Seas and Air?????????
Is there ONE rule for Israel and another one for the Arab countries???
