I don't quite get the logic ...
Your scenario:
- JPM acquire shares from a seller at $1.26 about 24-48 hours before negative news is released by company (finance backing pulled).
- JPM then write an analyst report marking the share price down to $0.75 (effectively devaluing the shares they just purchased)
Why would they do that?
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Last
85.0¢ |
Change
-0.030(3.41%) |
Mkt cap ! $2.061B |
Open | High | Low | Value | Volume |
88.0¢ | 88.5¢ | 85.0¢ | $9.549M | 11.08M |
Buyers (Bids)
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
46 | 599201 | 85.0¢ |
Sellers (Offers)
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
86.0¢ | 100953 | 8 |
View Market Depth
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
44 | 594701 | 0.850 |
16 | 328881 | 0.845 |
22 | 152375 | 0.840 |
17 | 63861 | 0.835 |
30 | 144829 | 0.830 |
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
0.860 | 100953 | 8 |
0.865 | 28000 | 3 |
0.870 | 70910 | 4 |
0.875 | 1701 | 1 |
0.880 | 212241 | 8 |
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