Re CKD trial: wasn't there an issue about the result's presentation---whether a possible 'legacy effect' may have positively affected the cohort which had the placebo on the last half of that trial which had a similar outcome as the other group taking the drug? As the placebo cohort had a similar result as the drug cohort, the logic was that the drug did not have a BETTER effect than the placebo
At the time I thought that a big possible plus because if the drug continued to have an effect AFTER participants stopped taking it, it possibly proved that the drug changed the body's actions (and to me reinforced that the drug worked).
Anyone else - with a better memory- recall that discussion and be able to explain better??
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