''If the tarriffs were to onshore the manufacture and sale of domestic products - that would be a positive influence on product cost, no?'
No - it would not
very clearly one applies tariffs BECAUSE one's home manufacturing can't compete
which means that if one applies tariffs to such an extent that domestic production CAN compete -
then the product COST to the consumer MUST BE HIGHER -
and hence, inflationary
no matter which way one goes ----- tariffs = inflation
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