TCS, I can see your point, and agree regarding the discrimination. And I concede both cases were indeed criminal acts. BUT, most of us were considering that really no damage was done, and that fact had to be considered when imposing a sentence. So, no arguments on the discrimination aspect, mate. Back to your question: "However, I get back to my original point and ask why women who seduce under aged males are treated more leniently than males who seduce under age women?" Because the offence is deemed to be less serious in that no harm is done, beyond the committing of the said offence. But I'm curious...the night of the party with the english Teacher.....you werent tempted to join your classmates? Most of us would have been..
