So what is the conclusion lol???
Differeing opinions there.
I assume that the stock drops on the ex-div date becasue all of those holding after the close the day before the ex-div date are entitled to it. Thus they sell on the ex-div date becasue they have qualified for the div.
So...if i'm holding prior to the ex-div date, and i sell on the ex-div date, i am entitled to receive the dividend. RIGHT???
