Could someone please comment on the following and correct me if my understanding is incorrect:
In Bell Potter's report under basic data it states the free float is 62%
In round figures:
Shares on issue 1,662,000,000
Top 50 shareholders, 57% 940,000,000
Free Float, 62% 1,030,000,000
If one was to make the assumption that the top 50 did not trade their shares would I be correct that the only shares being traded by the day traders as such would be the variance between the top 50 and the free float, viz, 90,000,000 and not the variance between the shares on issue and the top 50, viz. 722,000,000
To put the above in another context is there only 5% of the company's issued shares exceptionally liquid or is it 43%.
The clarification of this obviously makes a significant difference to the volume of shares which may be traded.
Thanks
Geoff
AVB Price at posting:
11.0¢ Sentiment: Buy Disclosure: Held
