arttse...
Possibly...but I still haven't seen a response like that before.
What is the company trying to say?...the spike was O.K. because it was an existing shareholder?
But how strange...so the buyer was an existing shareholder...one would also assume the seller had to be an existing shareholder as well?
And what if it wasn't an existing shareholder who bought...does that somehow change things?
To me, the response was a bit like saying...we are aware the buyer bought at 4:28pm.
Means nothing...so why say it?
No...more to it in my opinion.
Cheers!
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Last
77.0¢ |
Change
0.000(0.00%) |
Mkt cap ! $48.08M |
Open | High | Low | Value | Volume |
0.0¢ | 0.0¢ | 0.0¢ | $0 | 0 |
Buyers (Bids)
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
1 | 1 | 79.0¢ |
Sellers (Offers)
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
90.0¢ | 9308 | 3 |
View Market Depth
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
1 | 1 | 0.790 |
1 | 4670 | 0.770 |
1 | 49122 | 0.760 |
1 | 24 | 0.730 |
2 | 47452 | 0.720 |
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
0.900 | 9308 | 3 |
0.950 | 5000 | 1 |
1.000 | 11450 | 2 |
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