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lispingduck

7,302 Posts.

15

04/04/15

21:38

Post #: 15036188
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Originally posted by Justis ↑

Arh I see where the confusion is, for CGT purposes when the contract of sale is signed is when CGT is calculated to. How ever you don't need to pay the CGT until after settlement as the sale could fall over.

I note that when there is no contract of sale the settlement date i used.

In any case the point stands that you own the property until settlement

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It must have been you who was confused, and not much point arguing about actual ownership when the question was a "Tax question".
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