It's interesting that you bring up the fact that a gap may have traded at that price point, but on very low volume. It always annoyed me when people called GAP! if a price point had been missed, but can someone please tell me how it's still not a gap if, say, 1 share traded in it? I've seen people call gaps being closed on, honestly, 1 share being traded. Given gaps are about market psychology (isn't everything?) how the hell is there a difference? I need a beer.
XPE Charts, page-1479
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Last
6.9¢ |
Change
0.000(0.00%) |
Mkt cap ! $1.862M | |||
| Open | High | Low | Value | Volume |
| 0.0¢ | 0.0¢ | 0.0¢ | $0 | 0 |
Buyers (Bids)
| No. | Vol. | Price($) |
|---|---|---|
| 2 | 91166 | 6.9¢ |
Sellers (Offers)
| Price($) | Vol. | No. |
|---|---|---|
| 8.5¢ | 182500 | 1 |
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| OAK (ASX) Chart |
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