Now seriously, do you not think I have exhausted or examined all these these areas at length?
I couldn't copy/paste the John verses in your link as HC, makes a mess of them.
Where your clan is claiming, the "a" God is applied because it looks different in the way God is written in the Greek here (shown here in your link, written two different ways).
In fact, if you do a serious search, you will find the Greek write God, 4 different ways. Now that is for a reason of which Philosophy of JW has distorted, no question about it.
If you insist on applying the "a" God when it is written as in John 1:1, you HAVE TO apply that all the way through the Bible, Agree???? Now then, when and if you do that, TRUST me you will fall head over heals, as you will HAVE TO apply the "A" God to the Almighty God. I went all through Rev and some others to check and find this.
What you seem to refuse to accept, they write God different and that depends or is usually dependent on it's position, whether it comes before "a" subject or after. (Now this is only a brief).
So lets examine the verses in question, but first one needs to totally grasp, WHAT is the Key Subject being spoken of FROM the get go in John. THAT IS THE WORD. Not a Son or anyone else for that matter = ONE only.
1:1 effectively, or is in three parts.
LOGOS = It is a Greek word meaning "a ground", "a plea", "an opinion", "an expectation", "word", "speech", "account", "to reason", "thought" etc.
Clearly it starts out in you, your heart, mind etc, as in, Jesus was slain before the foundation of the world.
We see in places where God speaks of things as though the ARE already and yet they DON'T yet exist.
So if we sum all that up as in, before God's plans actually come into play and when they actually do as in The Word of The LORD, The Word of God we have = THE WORD.
The commandments = The Word. It is used in the term "The" and it means, there is NO other, or this is the One that matters.
For the Jew = Dabar which has more meanings, representations than Logos.
Are we going to tell the Jews the meaning of Dabar?
Was not John coming from the Jewish perspective = Definitely.
But never the less, the Greek is clear, well,,,, for some maybe!
The Word as Jesus makes Clear (God's Word) ARE Spirit and life.
The Bible tells us, God's Spirit HAS thoughts, this Spirit express's those thoughts = Words and if those words abide in you = Life and light to your path.
As the rain comes down and waters the plants, they grow and produce seed = Seed of God brings Life and so shall HIS WORD be Isa 55.
That is the Word that WAS in the beginning and was before Creation in the mind and plans of God, The Father.
This plan, mind of God was the Glory (future) Which Jesus asked to receive before going to the Father. Effectively, that which you had with me, in plan and thought.
Abraham rejoiced to see Jesus's day and he saw it. Twas the likes of a vision as he didn't literally see Jesus. That was the plan, Rock that FOLLOWED them. AFTER!
Those that are of God, are not of this world, THEY ARE from above, but were they at one time with God = Only in the mind of God. We are Son's and Daughters of God, but NOT actually yet!!!
Example of The Word which was with God, in God and yet was or part of God.
Acts 15:18 Known unto God are all his works from the beginning of the world.
Jesus said, I have given them your name, stop and think, what was the key message Jesus repeatedly put forward and what did he give from the Father???
What is EVERY Book in our Bible made up of = The Word.
Do you think it appropriate to twist the meaning of word JUST in John 1:1.
AND add a capital W when it shouldn't have been?
Can you honestly say and show without question, Jesus spoke in the OT?
People in the OT at times when hearing, receiving the word of God, as far as they were concerned, it was God addressing them even though they saw and angel or one like a man = They NEVER separated The Word of God on these occasions from Almighty God.
The Bible tells us, exactly that and in these LAST days has spoken to us via his Son.
There is NO question about it, The Word in John is the very same word that created, Let there be light and that is in our face at 1:3 = That Word is the entire subject until 1:14 and Jesus picks it up and runs with it all the way through John. It's the bread, the light, seed and so on it goes and at the end, it (The Word) is the judge!
None of this nonsense it was through the word, as it WAS the word from God's mouth, breath etc. And this as I have shown you from the Bible was "in" (not by) Jesus, that God created. Jesus being, in the future context of God's plan, because of, for the sake of which is our FIRST available selections available from DIA = Why would would one ignore the first options available and create a myth or mystery???
As I said above, 1:1 is effectively in three, so we will number them 1-3, You will or should NOTE, the word or subject at the end of each one, BECOMES the Key message, point for the start of the next.
1. In the beginning was the word, (word is the key end subject here = beginning of next), 2. and the word was toward "the" God, (God being the key end subject = beginning of next, to establish and make the message clear as to who exactly the word is), 3. and God was the word.
Assistance to grasp what it's saying here or to sum it up - Rev 1:8 ..... which is, and which was, and which is to become......
This same verse - I am Alpha and Omega = God's Alphabet = The letters required to form his words, to relay to man.
He also says, He is the beginning and the ending. For man from the beginning, his word is to guide you, your light to your path, to hold your right hand, lead you, assist you to endure to the end, where that same word, WILL judge and reward you.
(I have suggested to you before, DYOR and you will find, NO Alpha - Omega's belong to Jesus).
So now it is, or should be VERY clear, God and his Word, from his Spirit are one in the singular ID. Hold that thought, as that proof is coming
Note - The last verse finished with the Word = Meaning, in form, alignment with the 1:1 pattern/form, dictates the start of the next verse - 1:2. The same (His word) was in the beginning with God = God & His Word. (Word = Plan, Mind, Reasoning). Take note of the subject that this verse finished with, Because = It is the subject of the next verses beginning.
The point well and truly established now and that being, God and His Word are ONE and the following takes place;
Heb 11:3 Through faith we understand that the worlds were framed by the word of God, so that things which are seen were not made of things which do appear = The plan, reasoning's within in God before the world was = The Word.
AND The Almighty God did this ALONE;
Isa 45:12 – I have made the earth and created man upon it: I even my hands, have stretched out the heavens and all their hosts have I commanded.
Neh 9:6 – Thou, even thou, art Lord alone; thou hast made heaven, the heaven of heavens, with all their hosts, the earth and all things that are therein, the seas and all things that are therein, and thou preservest them all; and the hosts of heaven worship thee
Isa 55:11 – So shall my word be that goeth forth out of my mouth: it shall accomplish that which I please, and it shall prosper in the thing whereto I send it.
Ps 33:6 – By the word of the Lord were the heavens made; and all the hosts of them by the breath of his mouth.
2 Kings 19:15 Part thereof – thou art the God, even thou alone, of all the kingdoms of the earth; thou hast made heaven and earth.
Psa 104:30 Thou sendeth forth thy Spirit, they are created: and thou renewest the face of the earth.
Psa 148:5 Let them praise the name of the LORD: for he commanded (spoke) and they were created.
1:3 All things were made by him (God as that's where the last verse finished off); and without him was not any thing made that was made.
The above verses make it very very clear that ONE was the maker here and Alone they were. To say otherwise, is clear neglect and abuse of God's word. OH, you will go but, but, the NT says this and that = Well,,,,,, does it really say that or are YOU saying that?
Should the NT interpret the OT = NO NO NO!!!
For in God's foreknown plans, he created in Jesus, for Jesus, because of Jesus and for the sake of Jesus and had the bias translators or error of understanding of the Word, not crept in, the correct Greek words translations would NOT have used "by" when the Greek CLEARLY shows in places that it should have been the likes of "IN" Jesus things were created. Do a copy paste of the Greek lingo and define on Google, not wotsup, but Google.
As in, He was slain before the foundation of the world = Future.
1:4 In him (God) was life; and the life was the light of men.
Gen 1:11 And God said, let the earth bring forth grass and it was so - It's alive and grew.
God is a Spirit and that Spirit has thoughts which come to us as The Word of God and if those words abide in you they will bring life eternal and be the light to your feet and path Psa 119:105
Hence when Jesus said, (his Fathers words) They are Spirit and life = They are from the Spirit of his God and Father and will bring life eternal.
Jesus spoke the word of God Because he had the Spirit of God without measure, this is at 1:14 around his baptism time and hence because of this, The Father Word within him, the verse John 5:26 show us - For as the Father hath life in himself; so hath he given to the Son to have life in himself. Pretty much or is, because he has The Word in him.
This to all that have an ear and want to hear, IS The Word which was in the Beginning = The Word of Life 1 John 1:1.
1:14 The Word "flesh" became...................... Nothing of a sort or even "a" hint that, the word was made flesh. It was Jesus that was made flesh and God's word came in Him and this verse is also around his baptism time.
Prior though or because of The Word, Mary became with child, who would "be" at some point called, The Son of God.
So God who is a Spirit, without measure dwelt in His Son, and because the Spirit is also The Word (from which the words comes), naturally Jesus then has all the word of God in him.
Acts 2:22 tells us, It was God (His Spirit) within Jesus that did all the miracles.
Jesus also told us this, time and time again.
So quite plain and simply as Jesus also repeats, The Word came IN IN IN, the flesh of Jesus.
Jesus wants that very same word to be in our Flesh - That doesn't make us God now then, does it????
For those still a little confused, look in Gen, The Word - Came light, grass, trees, snake haha.
So in the OT we have God saying of the future one, I "will be" a Father to him and He "will be" a Son to me. (To David this was said)
Similar was said to Mary. We then see God saying this is my Son.
Further as we go we see Only Begotten Son and then and now that he is with the Father John 1:18 Only Begotten God = We SEE STAGES of Jesus's progression.
It also Shows, Proof THAT YOU CANT apply "a" God in 1:1, that title was only applicable given after he was exalted.
As I said in a previous post, it's up to you and believe you me, this post is only a tiny snippet on this subject and available verses.
I would like to put a thought to you to ponder - consider my early days on here and ask yourself - could this wotsup come up with this stuff by himself???
I will put it to you that, through Jesus to God and the Right approach, is the source of the info I've been given, not philosophy of man etc.
All I can suggest, find the correct approach, switch of the influences in thy mind, and let the numerous verses do the talking.
Anyway, as far as I'm concerned or been shown, this subject of Jesus being the word in the first 13 verses is knocked clearly on the head at no further than John 1:3 as clearly shown. If one doesn't see that, then clearly or sadly John 8:47 has a hold?
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