shorting, page-49

Hi Damman,

I understand that - and that would be specifically spelt out in the mortgage agreements.

But that's not the question I'm asking about.

T4P's post was a blanket statement about shares that people own. With no provisos - nothing about indirect ownership of shares or shares which might have liens over them.

So, my question is: How can somebody sell shares which I own personally (to which I have clear title) without my permission?

If this is not possible, then I think T4P's statement regarding short selling needs qualification.

However, I'm quite happy to have explained to me how my shares, that I own personally and have clear title to (the implication of my question), can be sold without my permission.

Cheers
Red