So we are now relying upon market predictions to normalise wealth inequality. And that's because "once-in-a-generation favourable movements in capital markets,which benefited those who were prudent enough to have saved and invested."
And those favourable movements are due to QE and interest rate suppression? Why MUST a bear market lead to a reduction in wealth inequality (wrt the 1%) or could this QE experiment not produce an exacerbation of same? That's a big call beyond either of our scope.
It could be contended that QE was the reflection of a plutocratic system which sought to protect its wealth first. Your 'prudent savers' have effectively seen part of their real wealth transferred to ameliorate the debt burden of the imprudent. As QE unwinds/bear market(if) ensues it may be that the plutocrats once again find refuge and the over-indebted main-street is left with the hot potato.
