- If the trial involved the use of standard care plus VG-0001 (and plus placebo), rather than deducing that VG-001 performed no better than standard care, would not the more plausible deduction be that it had no effect at all?
- How does the Board reconcile this with many previous statements to shareholders that VG001 was derisked and was proven to be effective?
- why after many many years of research by QUT (at shareholder expense) was not QUT able to discern that VG001 had no effect whatsoever?
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