Speaking generally, say company X is owned 40% by shareholder A, 31% by shareholder B, 20% by shareholder C and 9 % by the rest.
Then Shareholder A is for whatever reason, perhaps quite validly precluded from voting at a meeting.
Shareholder B who owned 30%, suddenly has 51% of the voting shares.
Precluding shareholder A might be totally valid but if it automatically gives B control, there has to be something wrong with that.
