in your words he most likely sold another liquid asset to fund this latest $500,000 stock purchase.
This is a joke right? even if he sold $500,000 worth of shares in another company, don't you have to wait 3 days to get your money?
so how could he have sold one asset for $500,000 the same day he bought $500,000 of RFF.
Unless of course he had $500,000 just lying around in a normal bank account earning 0%.
Or he had that $500,000 in a term depo, and he had to break the term depo, and lose the % earned up till that time, that's the only logical explanation, OR he used RFF or RFM money.
Ann: Change of Director's Interest Notice - David Bryant, page-13
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