I am not an accountant but the way I read this is they have set aside these fund to cover any losses that *MAY* happen in the future.
If these losses do not materialise they then will surely write-up the balance.
To me, an eternal optimist to my detriment, this is a huge *IF*; 90% defaulting would spell armageddon surely so I expect most of this will be written up in the future.
I hope someone with more nouse can patch the holes in my understanding.
provision vs writeoff
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