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Christ is The God Man -Jehovah in the flesh, page-312

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tonio

913 Posts.

14/03/20

09:06

Post #: 43489864
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Originally posted by wotsup ↑

Your talking Horse sh.... again, and in pure desperation.

So YOU need to address the numerous verses like the following, which CLEARLY show, there is NO way possible that Jesus had a hands on role in creation, or was there when things were created;

Isa 44:24 - Thus saith Yahweh, thy redeemer, and he that formed thee from the womb, I Yahweh that maketh allthings; that stretcheth forth the heavens alone; that spreadeth abroad the earth by myself;

Nothing will talk you around the above, accept a pack of lies that you must knowingly, accept.

Yahweh is -> Hear, Israel! Yahweh our God Yahweh -- ONE (is). (One as in ONE apple).
NOT one as in One family for example, but singular.

Jesus's backup for this Isa as well -> Matt 19:4 - And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female,
Gen 1:27 - So created God Aleph Tav man in His image -- in the image of God He created him male and female He created them.

Have ye not read -> Jesus ask this, BECAUSE that IS exactly how he come to know, He read it.

Are you seriously going to TRY and tell us, Jesus would NOT have said the likes of, "WE" made them male and,....OR I was there when He made them male and......., if he was there.
If so, your showing nothing but ignorance and condoning an outright and KNOWN lie, right before your very eyes.

Failing that, then 2 Thes 2:11 MOST definitely has You by the short and curly's = not two ways about it.
-----------
If you claim Jesus is the word = You have also failed miserably to show and prove that Jesus spoke all creation referenced in John 1:3 into being (Jesus said, Jesus said, Jesus said in Gen and NOT God said) as John 1:1 & 2, "the Word" subject dictates this.
----

Col 1:15-17
15The Son is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation. 16

For

in

Him

all things

were created,

things in

heaven

and

on

earth,

visible

and

invisible,

whether

thrones

or

dominions

or

rulers

or

authorities.

All things

were created

through

Him

and

for

Him.

17He is before all things, and

in

Him all things hold together.

1:18 And he is the head of the body,the church, who is the beginning, firstborn out from the dead, so that might be in all things He holding preeminence.

The IN term whether you like it or not and of which, You keep ignoring, sets the stage for why God created all things, alone and by Himself and the stage for the context of all these verses you quote = through, on account of, by reason of, for the sake of, because of, the FUTURE one to be.

In God's plan, he put Jesus before all things and it was IN this plan, because of, as to why he created.
Initially before all things, in the mind and plans of God, the Jesus to be was the first plan = firstborn of God creation plan, the beginning of the creation of God = in his mind Rev 3:14 and pre-slain in this plan Rev 13:8.

You never covered your false claim, explanation as to why Jesus is called the "firstborn of creation".
Your answer to this amounted to ZERO, DID NOT answer it, address it.

Jesus's literal, outside of the plan, holding preeminence ONLY eventuated after he was raised.
Had he failed, which he could have, then he would Not literally hold this position and all things would not NOW be, being literally held together through him.
---------
The link you gave on the Dia, it is YOU that needs to read the whole area as WELL as the Bible references it uses and then YOU will see how flawed the claim which your following, written via trinity people is.
Not to mention, the OT creation accounts leave zero room for creation to have literally, physically been through Jesus.

Jesus is NOT the one saying, and God said and God said and you need to show that as John 1:1-3 DICTATE this.
Psa 33:6 By the word of Yahweh were the heavens made and the host of them by the breath (Word/Spirit) of his mouth.
Isa 44:24 -> John 1:3 - All things were made through him ->(Yahweh); and without him-> (Yahweh) was not any thing made that was made.

1:4 In Him (Yahweh) was life -> (Eph 3:9) and that life (Eph 3:9) was the light of men = the word of God, plans/glory Psa 119:105.

You totally ignore Mal 3:1 and Isa's equivalent, that as far as John coming on the scene, that he at FIRST was to prepare the way FOR Yahweh, BEFORE the SUDDEN appearance of Jesus.
John's first 13 verses do EXACTLY that, all about Yahweh when out of the blue, Jesus suddenly crops up for the first time in 1:14.
1:14 And the Word ->(Eph 3:9 Part of the word) flesh became...........................
And the rest of the Word, Glory, came within Jesus, without measure and confirmed in John 14:10, which is effectively the parallel verse to 1:14.

Expand

Have ye not read -> Jesus ask this, BECAUSE that IS exactly how he come to know, He read it.

Hi Wotsup,
Once again I am sorry to burst you bubble.
It says "Have ye not read" not "have we not read"
Jesus did not come to know by reading about it. He was there in the beginning .

Are you seriously going to TRY and tell us, Jesus would NOT have said the likes of, "WE" made them male and,....OR I was there when He made them male and......., if he was there.
If so, your showing nothing but ignorance and condoning an outright and KNOWN lie, right before your very eyes.

Wotsup,
All creation is from the Father, through the Son with the breath of the Holy Spirit
They are the one that said let us make man in our image and in our likeness.
They are the he that created all

The link you gave on the Dia, it is YOU that needs to read the whole area as WELL as the Bible references it uses and then YOU will see how flawed the claim which your following, written via trinity people is.

Wotsup,
It doesn't matter if you are an atheist, an Anabaptist or an animist.
When you translate the Greek you have to follow certain grammatical rules.
One of them is that the word 'dia' with the genitive is translated as " through."

" In its use the biblical writers differ in no respect from the Greek"

Wotsup, this says that the word "dia" in the New Testament Greek is in no way different from other Greek works of antiquity.
If you believe it is some trinity conspiracy then it must have been from the beginning of the Greek language.

Last edited by tonio: 14/03/20
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