Until very recently we were no different to Sweden in our approach to this thing; our restaurants and bars were still open for business until very recently, so that our total number of deaths at this point in time is a lot less than Sweden's must be due to some other causal factors.
Maybe Swedish genetic make-up means they are simply slow to recover: they have just 16 recovery cases out of 4,000 reported cases, compared to Australia's 244 recoveries out of 4,460 reported cases.
Maybe it was winter there and summer here... maybe the Swedes are in poorer health generally.... maybe the Swedish death cohort had different pre-conditions... maybe the Australian health care system has better ICU treatment regimes... maybe a host of of other things.
But not because we shut up shop and they didn't.
Because we only did so only very recently (and even then, not very well).
So you need to ask someone who knows about these sorts of things why the frequency of both recovery and death in one population group for a given number of infections is higher than for a different population group with a similar same number of infections.
PS. No churlish "gotcha" snipe today about how my portfolio is doing? How come?
