A few questions:
(1) Did PT definitely lend his shares for shorting?
(2) Is money made from shorting a share when that share's price goes down in value?
(3) DOES shorting any one company's shares definitely contribute to lowering the price of that company's shares?
(4) Does a director of a company lending shares for shorting look after the interests of shareholders by doing such?
(5) Is a primary precedent of director responsibility to look after the interests of shareholders?
These are questions that some more familiar with these things may be able to answer. If you can answer these questions that would be much appreciated by myself.
Which greedy a$$ thought up "shorting" and which "scaly" scale holder(s) legitimized this practice?
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