I'm still trying to get my head around it all. We don't quite know what the exact details on the 7 year time-frame for the conversion to occur at.
My question would if 90% taken up by the lenders wouldn't they have to formally take over the remaining 10%, and if so at what price.
Also when is this conversion agreed upon, now or 7 years time?
And does the conversion actually have to occur if the debt is paid back before 7 years?
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