I'm not sure I follow the logic of JP Morgan's table 'Heavy Load', where market cap is added to debt in order to arrive at an 'Enterprise Value', and then debt is expressed as a % of it.
JPM apparently is expressing confidence that the better capitalised trusts (which I take to mean market cap) will be able to refinance successfully.
My recollection of banking is that we looked to our security and management, not market cap, but I could be wrong.
Could someone kindly put me straight on this?
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