Am I read this correctly?
POST-TAX GAIN ON SALE IS EXPECTED TO BE BROADLY NEUTRAL
Does this mean that AMP makes absolutely nothing from the sale, after costs, adjustments, and tax?
If I am interpreting that correctly, it defies belief that AMP would sell a $60 billion dollar fund, that generates $90 million in revenue and $10 million in underlying earnings for a poulty $185M (that's UP TO $185M, depending on hitting revenue targets), which, after costs and adjustments, turns out to be NEUTRAL in gain (i.e. total gain = zero).
Not sure if I'm ready this right. Would appreciate other people's insight.
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