How did that hypothetical player re-accumulate the stock they sold to drop the price? they would have to buy more than they sold for a lower average price point. Can anyone show how if this is possible in this case? For the record, i have huge doubts to the manipulation hypothesis
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Last
44.0¢ |
Change
0.000(0.00%) |
Mkt cap ! $188.6M |
Open | High | Low | Value | Volume |
43.0¢ | 44.0¢ | 43.0¢ | $108.2K | 247.6K |
Buyers (Bids)
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
4 | 7673 | 43.5¢ |
Sellers (Offers)
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
44.0¢ | 85293 | 4 |
View Market Depth
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
6 | 19573 | 0.435 |
5 | 53164 | 0.430 |
4 | 27737 | 0.425 |
7 | 94194 | 0.420 |
2 | 8300 | 0.415 |
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
0.440 | 62200 | 3 |
0.445 | 25218 | 3 |
0.450 | 25240 | 3 |
0.455 | 35466 | 2 |
0.460 | 32177 | 2 |
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