How did that hypothetical player re-accumulate the stock they sold to drop the price? they would have to buy more than they sold for a lower average price point. Can anyone show how if this is possible in this case? For the record, i have huge doubts to the manipulation hypothesis
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Last
44.0¢ |
Change
0.000(0.00%) |
Mkt cap ! $188.6M | |||
| Open | High | Low | Value | Volume |
| 43.0¢ | 44.0¢ | 43.0¢ | $108.2K | 247.6K |
Buyers (Bids)
| No. | Vol. | Price($) |
|---|---|---|
| 4 | 7673 | 43.5¢ |
Sellers (Offers)
| Price($) | Vol. | No. |
|---|---|---|
| 44.0¢ | 85293 | 4 |
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