Sorry, but isn't this showing directors cashing in existing shares so as to fund the purchase of even more shares than what they had previously? With possibly some extra cash in the pocket to fund any tax on the initial sale?
I'll let the experts comment, but if this is correct, you can't just look at one side of the equation.
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Last
2.4¢ |
Change
0.000(0.00%) |
Mkt cap ! $247.0M |
Open | High | Low | Value | Volume |
2.4¢ | 2.5¢ | 2.4¢ | $408.1K | 16.97M |
Buyers (Bids)
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
3 | 194800 | 2.4¢ |
Sellers (Offers)
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
2.5¢ | 3853329 | 13 |
View Market Depth
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
3 | 194800 | 0.024 |
60 | 17910386 | 0.023 |
61 | 10361312 | 0.022 |
38 | 9346443 | 0.021 |
55 | 9856999 | 0.020 |
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
0.025 | 3853329 | 13 |
0.026 | 4607614 | 15 |
0.027 | 11078446 | 20 |
0.028 | 5152977 | 30 |
0.029 | 6417821 | 17 |
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