I am thinking there would only be one trade, the taking of the short sale at say 4 cents, repaid by exchange of the capital raise shares allocated at 3.5 cents
Making a risk free profit of 0.5 cents per share, because the repay price is known in advance at 3.5 cents
Have I got this all wrong ?
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0.2¢ |
Change
0.000(0.00%) |
Mkt cap ! $57.86M | |||
| Open | High | Low | Value | Volume |
| 0.2¢ | 0.2¢ | 0.2¢ | $55.76K | 27.88M |
Buyers (Bids)
| No. | Vol. | Price($) |
|---|---|---|
| 340 | 940634314 | 0.1¢ |
Sellers (Offers)
| Price($) | Vol. | No. |
|---|---|---|
| 0.2¢ | 6254489 | 4 |
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| 88E (ASX) Chart |