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Two questions about the Voice's wording, page-60

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Scott th Ratbag

58,324 Posts.

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03/10/23

14:10

Post #: 70148454
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Originally posted by Treefern: ↑

So you're telling me that there are bodies where the Indigenous voice has been heard for 38 years since 1973? Is THAT what you are telling me here? That the Indigenous voice HAS been heard for 38 years? If so, where are their successes? If they have been abject failures, then why would this one be any different?

"Silenced AGAIN" Scott. You are telling us all that the Indigenous Voice has been heard for 38 of the last 50 years. Is that it? Why hasn't it made a difference? They all lasted years and years, no abolition.

Scott, either they've never been heard before, and therefore they can't be silenced AGAIN, or they've been heard for 38 of the last 50 years and couldn't get out of their own way. Which is it? I'll let you pick, seeing you're the one who is contradicting yourself with the post.

It's not spin, Scott, you are contradicting yourself and the Prime Minister. Let me know which one you think it is, because they can't have 'never have been heard before', AND 'heard' in all the bodies you have just listed.

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oh sorry.... NOT SPIN..... how stupid of me - baiting it is then.
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