I just don't understand that people can logically think that shares bought by A and then sold by B and then bought back by B and eventually sold by A is much different from A buying the shares and then selling them apart from the timing of the buy/sell transactions.
In simple math the scenarios can be described as below:
A - B + B - A = 0 ( A buys, B sells, B buys, A sells)
A - A = 0 (A buys, A sells)
and when A = equal to B you can break this down:
(A - B) + (B - A) = 0 = A - A = B - B = 0 = 0 = 0
A - B = 0 (A buys shares and B has sells the shares. You can add in that B sells the shares "short" to confuse the hell out of everyone, but no difference)
B - A = 0 (B buys the shares back and A eventually sells the shares)
The only issue is the timing when A eventually sells the shares. B selling the shares means the shares are sold sooner than A may have intended to sell the shares and then buys the shares back and A sells later. Other than timing, there really is no voodoo involved.
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pilbara minerals limited
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$1.78

why is this stock going down, page-52
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Last
$1.78 |
Change
0.070(4.09%) |
Mkt cap ! $5.727B |
Open | High | Low | Value | Volume |
$1.71 | $1.81 | $1.70 | $88.60M | 50.19M |
Buyers (Bids)
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
3 | 4805 | $1.78 |
Sellers (Offers)
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
$1.78 | 20000 | 2 |
View Market Depth
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
3 | 4805 | 1.775 |
12 | 77359 | 1.770 |
6 | 25588 | 1.765 |
19 | 153962 | 1.760 |
36 | 398851 | 1.750 |
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
1.780 | 20000 | 2 |
1.785 | 575 | 2 |
1.790 | 50057 | 9 |
1.795 | 85746 | 8 |
1.800 | 101326 | 16 |
Last trade - 16.19pm 21/07/2025 (20 minute delay) ? |
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