I'm asking how you work out the cost base given that you are still left with shares. You have just plucked a number. And in your example it's a capital loss. If the return is more than the cost base then surely the return is a capital gain. Or are you trying to say its tax free (seems far fetched)? PS: you need a cost base for the remaining shares when you eventually sell.
Ann: Proposed return of 42 cents per share to shareholders, page-61
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